There is a significant correlation between the number of guns owned and the number of homicides from guns. The more guns owned, the less gun deaths.
My point was, the opposite is also true while being more efficient.
I do not understand what you are saying. Are you saying that gun homicides have not gone down despite gun ownership going up? or are you saying that the two have nothing to do with each other? Please clarify.
Who is to say there aren't other factors that have worked against that correlation in recent years? Say maybe this ridiculous idea that is we make zones "gun free" then no guns will ever go there?
Your graph is showing a massive decrease in a 4 year period and then decreases slowly over a 14 years period. Your graph was sketchy so here is one over a longer period, oddly there's was a big spike when it starts ... if you look at the trend it's decreasing slowly, regardless of guns per person increasing.

This is a graph of what appears to be all homicides, not gun homicides (an important distinction). This graph would generally mean that people are murdering less in general. What is the argument made that this has nothing to do with an increase in gun ownership because I don't see one? If the argument is that the increase in homicides from 85-92 debunks the logic of
- You are less likely to murder someone regardless of how you do it if you think the other person has access to a gun -
that is false. As I said earlier the two are not mutually exclusive. Furthermore, you don't provide gun ownership data during that period as well, so it is unknown how gun ownership runs during the time homicides go up. Regardless, assuming that gun ownership has increased steadily, it is much easier to claim more guns = less homicide with x exception, than it is to argue more guns = more homicide with all but x exception.